Filing IT returns even for income below Rs.5 lakhs is compulsory for 2013-14 assessment year.

2013-14 ఎస్సేస్మెంట్ సంవత్సరమునకు , సంవత్సర ఆదాయము రు. 5 లక్షలకు లోబడి ఉన్నాను ITరిటర్ను సమర్పించుట  తప్పని సరి. గత రెండు సంవత్సరములు గా ఉన్న సదుపాయము ఈ సంవత్సరము ఇవ్వబడలేదు. గమనించగలరు. 

సంబధిత ప్రెస్స్ వివరములు క్రింద ఇవ్వబడినవి.                           (Courtesy : gconnect.in) 

Income Tax Department issues press release to clarify that unlike previous year Salaried Employees with Total Income up to Rs.5 lakhs too have to file ITR (Income Tax Return) this year viz., Assessment year 2013-14.

The full text of Press Release issued by CBDT (Cenral Board of Direct Tax) is as follows

The CBDT has, vide notification dated 1-05-2013, made E-filing of Return compulsory for Assessment Year 2013-14 for persons having total assessable income exceeding Five lakh rupees.

The CBDT vide its earlier notifications had exempted salaried employees having total income up to Rs. 5 lakhs including income from other sources up to Rs. 10,000/- from the requirement of filing return of income for assessment year 2011-12 and 2012-13 respectively. The exemption was available only for the assessment year 2011-12 and 2012-13. The exemption was giving considering ‘paper filing of returns’ and their ‘processing through manual entry’ on system.

However, this year the facility for online filing of returns has been made user-friendly with the advantage of pre-filled return forms. These E-filed forms also get electronically processed at the central processing centre in a speedy manner. Hence, the exemption provided during the last two years is not being extended for assessment year 2013-14. Taxpayers are encouraged to file their returns electronically. E-filing is an easy, fast and secure method of filing of income tax return. Moreover, Digital signature is not mandatory for these taxpayers and they can transmit the data in the return electronically by downloading ITRs, or by online filing and thereafter submit the verification of the return in From ITR-V acknowledgement after signature to Central Processing Centre. The processing for E-filed returns is faster.

From 25th July to 31st July 2013 (Except 27th and 28th July being holidays), Special Return Receipt Counters (FOR SALARIED TAX PAYERS) will operate at Pratayakshar Bhawan, Civic Centre, Minto Road, New Delhi this year. (Instead of Pragati Maidan and Mayur Bhavan as were done in the past).

The special counters have been set up jurisdiction wise as follows:

·         For CIT-XIV Charge (Govt. Salary) at ‘B’ Block, Ground Floor in Civil Centre,

·         For CIV-XV Charge (PSUs/Schools/Colleges/Bank Salary) at ‘C’ Block, Ground Floor in Civic Centre,

·         For CIT-XVI Charge (Private Salary) at ‘C’ Block, Ground Floor in Civil Centre,

·         In addition special counters separately will function at ‘B’ and ‘C’ Block in Civic Centre for Senior Citizens and Differently abled persons.

As Returns of Income above Rs. 5 lakhs have to be e-filed online mandatorily, the same will not be received at any of these special counters. Only paper return of income upto 5 lakhs can be filed at these counters. Other facilities like Helpdesk,Tax Return Preparers (TRPs), UTI/NSDL counters, Bank, tax payment facility, PAN facilitation counter etc. Will be also available at Civic Centre, New Delhi during the same period.

Government allots Rs 1,300crore to Post Bank

పోస్ట్ బ్యాంక్ మొదలు కొరకు అవసరమగు మనీ కాపిటల్ కొరకు రు. 1300- కోట్లు మంజురుకు " Ministry of expenditure" అంగీకారము తెలిపినట్లు తెలియవచ్చుచున్నది. 

ఈ క్రింది వార్తను పరిశీలించండి. 

తెలుగు అనువాదము కొరకు ప్రక్కన ఉన్న " Transelator"  ==>  లో తెలుగు సెలెక్ట్ చేసుకొని చదువ వలెను.  

NEW DELHI: The expenditure department has decided to sanction Rs 1,300 crore to the proposed Post Bank of India to meet its capital requirements even as the department of financial services (DFS) - the wing in the finance ministry that deals with state-run banks and their poliiies – chose to stay away from the issue.

The proposal's backing by the expenditure finance commission and its subsequent green light by finance minister P Chidambaram is seen as the official go-ahead by the finance ministry, ignoring the DFS's stance. The DFS position is seen as the first instance of the agency not backing the Post Bank's plan, which officers in the department have privately mocked at.

"They think they can use the postal deposit model for their banking foray. Nothing in their plan seems to be clear. Banking isn't easy," said an officer, who did not wish to be identified. In fact, a strong Post Bank is seen to be the biggest challenge to existing public sector banks, including State Bank of India, which controls 70% of the banking business in the country. SBI, the largest lender, has a little less than 15,000 branches, while there are over 1.5 lakh post offices across the country.

Although Post Bank does not intend to open a bank branch in each post office, the plan is to use postmen to meet the financial inclusion goal. Secretary (posts) P Gopinath refused to speak to TOI despite several attempts.

According to the plan, Post Bank will have 50 branches in the first year, which will be increased to 150 by the fifth year. The branches will be located in select Head Post Offices in Tier-1-4 centres and select Sub-Post Offices in Tier-5-6 centres.

To meet RBI norms, the postal department proposes to set up a new entity - Post Bank of India - that will have an independent board and separate operations. Apart from independent directors, the board will have representatives from the finance ministry and the postal department. Separate recruitment has been planned to have specialist bankers.

While converting the entire postal network would have meant a capital requirement of over Rs 60,000 crore, by setting up a special entity, the fund requirement has been reduced. This, officers said, will also help create a more focused strategy.

Source : http://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/ dated 22/07/2013

Circle welfare fund for GDS

GDS ల కొరకు సర్కిల్ వెల్ఫేర్ ఫండ్ ప్రతిపాదించబడినది. 

అమలు తేదీ : 01-09-2013

నెలకు రు. 20- వంతున సంవత్సరమునకు రు. 240- ప్రతి సంవత్సరము మార్చి నెల జీతములో రికవరీ చెయబదును. 

ప్రతి ఒక్క GDS కు తప్పనిసరి. 

చనిపోయినపుడు ఆర్ధిక అవసరములకు, ఆరోగ్య అవసరములకు, పిల్లల చదువులకు తదితర అవసరముల కొరకు ప్రతిపాదించబడినది. ఒక అవసరమునకు ఒక సారి మాత్రమే వాడుకొనవచ్చును. చిఫ్ పోస్ట్ మాస్టర్ జనరల్ గారిద్వార అనుమతించబడును. 

మరిన్ని వివరములకొరకు " క్లిక్ " చేయండి. 

Accounts line HSG II & Genaral line LSG promotions

అకౌంట్స్ లైన్ HSG II ప్రమోషను పొందిన కా// ఇ. బ్రహ్మయ్య APM Accounts, Ongole గారికి ఆభినందనలు.
జనరల్ లైన్ LSG పొందిన సహచరులకు ఆభినందనలు. 

1. శ్రీమతి Ch. మనోరమ 
2. శ్రీ SA హఫీజ్ 
3. శ్రీమతి R.శ్యామలాదేవి 

Chf.PMG orders Memo.सं.No.ST/6-1(P)/NB LSG/2013         दिनांक Date :        17.07.2013

మరిన్ని వివరములకు www.aipeup3ap.blogspot.in ను చూడండి. 

PA recruitment short listed candidates for paper II released.

పోస్టల్ అసిస్టంట్ ఉద్యోగాములకొరకు పేపర్ 2 రాయుటకు అర్హత పొందిన వారి వివరములు విడుదల అయినవి. 

ఈ క్రింది లింక్ ద్వారా చూడవచ్చును. 

Click here 

మరిన్ని వివరముల కొరకు www.nfpe.blogspot.in  ని చూడండి. 

NREGS నూతన ఇన్సెంటివ్ వివరముల కు సంబంధించిన ఆదేశములు 

Instructions regarding calling of skeleton staff on Sundays/holidays in delivery offices for processing of accountable mail are held in abeyance until further orders.

ఆదివారము మరియు సెలవు దినములలో మెయిల్ ప్రాసెసింగ్ కొరకు ఉద్యోగులను పిలుచు ఆదేశములు అబెయన్స్ లో పెట్టబడినవి. ప్రభుత్వ ఆదేశములు పరిశీలించండి. 

Government of India

Ministry of Communications & IT

Department of Posts

Mail Business Division

Dak Bhawan, Sansad Marg

New Delhi-110001

No. 34-03/2013-D Dated 11-07-2013

To
All Heads of Circles

Sub:- Need to ensure prompt delivery of mail on the day of receipt at the Post Offices.

     This has reference to the Directorate D. O. letter of even no. dated 19-06-2013 on the above subject vide which Circles were asked to bring skeleton staff on Sundays/ holidays on duty so that accountable mails can be processed and kept ready in advance to be included in the first delivery of next working day.

2. In this connection, it is intimated that the Directorate is further examining the issue of calling skeleton staff on duty on Sundays/ holidays for processing of mail.

3. Instructions regarding calling of skeleton staff on Sundays/holidays in delivery offices for processing of accountable mail are, therefore, held in abeyance until further orders.

4. However, other instructions contained in Directorate DO letter of even no. dated 19-06-2013 will continue to be operative.

 (M B Gajbhiye)

Assistant Director General (MO

Why Union ? Please watch this vedio.

యూనియన్ ఎందుకు? ఈ వీడియో పరిసీలించండి. 

కేంద్ర ప్రభుత్వోద్యోగులకు , పెన్సనర్లకు శుభవార్త. రాష్ట్ర మానవ హక్కుల

కేంద్ర ప్రభుత్వోద్యోగులకు , పెన్సనర్లకు శుభవార్త. రాష్ట్ర మానవ హక్కుల 

కమీషను ప్రతి జిల్లలో  కనీసము ఒక్క CGHS ఆసుపత్రి ఉండునటుల 

చూడవలసినది గా ప్రతిపాదనలు ఇచ్చినది. దీనివలన కేంద్ర 

ప్రభుత్వోద్యోగులు  , పెన్సనర్లు తమ ఆరోగ్య సమస్యలకొరకు దూరప్రాంతము  

లకు పోవు బాధ త్వరలో తొలగ వచ్చును. 

 courtesy : sapost.blogspot.in 

Human Rights Commission has directed CGHS to empanelled one hospital in each district for benefit to all retired employees

Rights panel directive to CGHS

The State Human Rights Commission has directed the Director of Central Government Health Scheme (CGHS) to include one hospital in each district in the panel of the scheme to enable all the retired employees to get the benefits of the government’s health insurance scheme.

He also directed the Director and the Central Secretary to submit the report in this regard on August 7. The direction was following a complaint filed by Leela George, a retired central government employee.

There is only one hospital in the state empanelled in the health insurance scheme, which is in the capital city. There are only three consulting centres under the scheme which are also situated here. This makes it difficult for the pensioners residing in other districts to avail the benefits of the scheme.

The retired employees became members of the scheme by paying from Rs 15,000 to 20,000. The members of the scheme also had given up their medical allowance of Rs 3,600. The Commission also directed that the facility for free treatment for the members of the health insurance scheme be made at the hospitals which are empanelled in the Ex-servicemen Contributory Health Scheme.

Read more at : http://newindianexpress.com

NFPE Kanigiri convention

ఆద్యంతము విజయవంతమైన కనిగిరి NFPE సమావేశములు 

జూన్ 7 వ తేదీ కనిగిరి పట్టణములో కా// ఆర్. బ్రహ్మానందం గారి అధ్యక్షతన NFPE ప్రాంతీయ సమావేశములు జరిగాయి. ఈ సమావేశములకు కనిగిరి చుట్టుప్రక్కలనుండే కాక పరకాశo డివిజను నలుమూలల నుండి కూడా దాదాపు 200 సభ్యులకు పైగా హాజరు అయినారు. 

ఈ సమావేశముల లో NFPE GDS జనరల్ సెక్రటరీ కా// పాండురంగారావు, NFPE P3 సర్కిల్ సెక్రటరీ కా// ప్రసాద్ , NFPE GDS సర్కిల్ అధ్యక్షులు కా// మనోహర్ , AP మహిళా కన్వెన్షన్ అధ్యక్షురాలు కా// పద్మావతి, NFPE P3 AP సర్కిల్ సహాయ కార్యదర్శి కా// నాగేశ్వరరావు , AP NFPE P3 ఉపాధ్యక్షులు కా// మోహనరావు , AP NFPE GDS సహాయ కార్యదర్శి కా// వెంకటేశ్వర్లు తదితరులు హాజరు అయి ప్రసంగించారు.

7 వ వేతన సంఘము ఆవస్యకత , AIPEU,GDS,NFPE ఆవిర్భవ కారణములు , రాబోవు పొరటములకు సాధించవలసిన ఐక్యత మొదలైన విషయములు చర్చించబడినవి.   

ఈ సమావేశముల ఫోటోలను ఈ క్రింద ఇవ్వబడినవి. 

ఈ సమావేశముల లో జరిగిన యూత్ కన్వెన్షన్ ఫోటోలు 

సమస్యలు వివరించుచున్న జి.డి. యస్. సభ్యులు 

MTS exam model paper

MTS పరిక్ష కొరకు మాదిరి ప్రశ్నా పత్రము ఈ క్రింద ఇవ్వబదినది. ఇది ఒక మాదిరి మాత్రమే. గమనించగలరు.

M.T.S EXAM MODEL CUM PRACTICE PAPER

This model paper prepared and compiled by Akula. Praveen Kumar, SPM, Papannapet Sub Office-502 303, Medak Division, Andhra Pradesh (9849636361,8019549939)

Disclaimer:- All questions/Information provided in this post are Compiled by A. Praveen Kumar for in good faith of M.T.S Exam aspirants. The types of questions, number of questions and standard of questions may be vary in actual examination. This is my predictions only. Author of blog does not accepts any responsibility in relation to the accuracy, completeness, usefulness or otherwise, of the contents. Utmost care has been taken to prepare the model cum practice paper as per syllabus prescribed by India Post.

 This is a Model cum Practice paper only.

PART-A, PART-B, PART-C (i) for all Circles

PART-C (ii)  (  Language)

                                                          

MTS MODEL CUM PRACTICE PAPER

Time: 90 minutes                                                                             

Instructions:

1.      Answer all the Questions. All questions carry equal marks.

2.       Round off the appropriate choice in OMR sheet.

                                     PART-A (GENERAL KNOWLEDGE)

1.The 2014 football world cup is scheduled to be held in

A. China                         B. Japan                         C. Australia                 D. Brazil 2. Who among the following got the Bharat Ratna award before becoming the president of India? A. R. Venkatraman       B. Dr. Rajendra Prasad       C. Dr. Zakir Hussain  D. W. Giri 3.  First University in India was founded at A. Calcutta       B. Bombay         C. Delhi          D. Madras 4. Which of the following planets rotates clock wise? A. Pluto           B. Jupiter               C. Venus                    D. Mercury 5. How many times the preamble was amended  A. Once           B. Twice              C. Thrice                    D. Four times 6. Under which five year plan did agriculture show a negative growth? A. 1st Plan             B. 2nd Plan      C. 3rd Plan       D. 4th Plan 7. Which of the following involves chemical change? A. Rusting of iron                      B. Burning of wood - C. Reduction of wood               D. All the three 8. Which of the following is a submarine of the Indian Navy? A. INS Virat    B. INS Sindhurakshkr    C. INS Rajali     D. INS Vikrãnt 9. Shivpuri National Park of Madhya Pradesh is important for  A. Tiger and Elephant                         B.Wild Buffalo  C. Birds                                                D. Leopard and Chital 10. Which is the International Date Line?   A. Equator      B. 0o Longitude    C.90o East Longitude    D. 180o Longitude 11. National Institute of Rural Development is located at  A. New Delhi     B. Mumbai     C. Hyderabad    D. Kanpur 12. The song ‘Jana-Gana-Mana’ composed by Rabindra nath Tagore was first published in January 1912 under the title of  A. Rashtra Jagrati        B. Tatva Bodhini     C. Bharat Vidhata  D. None of the above 13. Which of the following sites has been included in UNESCO’s list of World Heritage Sites? A. Chilka Lake       B. Dal Lake        C. Nagin Lake    D. Sunderbans National Park 14. Who, out of the following, was the first recipient of Bharat Ratna Award? A. B.C. Roy        B. S. Chandrashekhar   C. C.V. Raman    D. Gobind Ballabh Pant 15. Who among the following Rajput kings defeated Muhammad Ghori for the first time? A. Prithviraj III      B .Chalukya Bhim    C. Jaichandra    D. Kumar Pal 16. In how many ways can a batsman be out in cricket? A. 8                          B. 9                    C.10                     D.11 17. The waterfall Victoria is located in   A. Canada     B. USA               C. Zimbabwe     D. India 18. Which of the following states receives most of the rainfall during the retreating monsoon season?  A. Andhra Pradesh     B. Punjab   C. Tamil Nadu    D. Kerala 19. When is the ‘International Women’s Day’ observed? A. March 8                  B. February 14               C. May 10    D. October 2 20.FFC stands for       A. Foreign Finance Corporation                      B. Film Finance Corporation C. Federation of Football Council                    D. None of these 21. India's first fast breeder neutron reactor was   A. Zerlina       B. Apsara       C. Purnima-1     D. Kamini 22. The title given by the British Government to Mahatma Gandhi which he surrendered during the non-cooperation movement was   A. Hind Kesari           B.Kaiser-e-hind      C. Raj Bahadur       D. Rt. Honorable 23. An anti British outfit ‘Abhinava Bharat’ was founded by    A. R. G.Bhandarkar   B. C.R.Das       C. V.D. Savarkar        D.Sardar Bhagat Singh     24. Which of the following is not a constitutional body? A. Election Commission                         B. Inter State Council   C. Finance Commission                          D. National Advisory Council 25. Who invented super Computer?  A. J.H.van Tassel   B. J.Kurtz    C.Babbage    D.J.G.Kemeny                     PART-B  ( ARITHMETIC)                      26. 4.2 x 4.2 - 1.9 x 1.9 2.3 x 6.1  = ?   A. 0.5                          B.1                               C.1.9                           D.2.5 27.  3 x 0.3 x 0.03 x 0.003 x 30 = ? A. 0.0000243              B. 0.00000243             C. 0.00243                  D.0.000243 28. A number when divided by 6 leaves a remainder 3. When the square of the same number is divided by 6, the remainder is: A.0                              B.1                               C.2                              D.3 29. Ten years ago, A was half of B in age. If the ratio of their present ages is 3:4, what will be the total of their present ages?  A.25                            B.35                             C.45                            D.55 30. The difference between the length and breadth of a rectangle is 23 m. If its perimeter is 206 m, then its area is: A.1520 m2                  B.2420 m2                  C. 2480 m2                 D.2520 m2 31. A merchant has 1000 kg of sugar, part of which he sells at 8% profit and the rest at 18% profit. He gains 14% on the whole. The quantity sold at 18% profit is: A.400Kg                     B.650Kg                     C.600Kg                     D.640Kg 32. A can complete a journey in 10 hours. He travels first half of the journey at the rate of 21 km/hr and second half at the rate of 24 km/hr. Find the total journey in km. A.220Km                    B.222Km                    C.224Km                    D.226Km 33. If 8 men can reap 80 hectares in 24 days, then how many hectares can 36 men rap in 30 days? A.350                          B.400                           C.425                          D.450 34. A man borrowed Rs. 3125 for compound interest and it amounted to Rs. 4500 in 2 years. The rate of compound interest per annum is A. 30%                        B.25%             C.20%                         D.15% 35.  Pointing to a man in a photograph, a woman said, "His brother's father is the only son of my grandfather." How is the woman related to the man in the photograph?    A. Sister                    B. Aunt           C. Grandmother                  D. Daughter  36. A and B invest in a business in the ratio 3 : 2. If 5% of the total profit goes to charity and A’s share is Rs. 855, the total profit is :    A. Rs1425                   B.Rs1500        C.Rs1537                    D.Rs1576 37. In an examination, 35% of the students passed and 455 failed. How many students appeared for the examination? A.490                          B.700               C.845                          D.1300 38. A train moves past a telegraph post and a bridge 264 m long in 8 seconds and 20 seconds respectively. What is the speed of the train? A.69.5Km/hr                        B.70Km/hr                C.79.2 Km/hr         D.79Km/hr 39. The difference between the cost price and sale price of an article is Rs. 240. If the profit is 20%, the selling price is: A.Rs1200                    B.Rs.1240                   C.Rs.1260                   D.Rs1220 40. A fruit seller sells mangoes at the rate of Rs. 9 per kg and thereby loses 20%. At what price per kg, he should have sold them to make a profit of 5%? A. Rs11.81                  B.Rs12                        C.Rs.12.25                  D.Rs.12.31 41. If simple interest on a certain sum of money for 4 years at 5% per annum is same as the simple interest on Rs. 560 for 10 years at the rate of 4% per annum then the sum of money is  A.Rs1190                    B.Rs1120          C.Rs 1210                 D.Rs1160 42. Compound interest of the amount of Rs.7500 /- in two years is Rs. 927 /-.What is the percentage rate of interest per year?  A. 5.4%                       B. 8%              C. 6%              D. 8.4% 43. Some boys are sitting in a row. P is sitting fourteenth from the left and Q is seventh from the right. If there are four boys between P and Q, how many boys are there in the row? A.22                B.23                 c.24                 D.25 44.  'CIRCLE' is related to 'RICELC' in the same way as 'SQUARE' is related to— A. UQSERA   B. QUSERA               C. UQSAER               D. QSUERA 45.  How many D's are there in the following letter-series, which are preceded by K and followed by Q ? KDRMBSKDQKRBLKDQMQDKEFQDK A. 4                             B. 2                  C. 1                 D. 3 46. Ravi goes 5 km towards North from a fixed point. Then he goes 3 km after turning to his right. After this he goes 5 km turning to his right. In the end he goes 4 km after turning to his left. How far and in what direction is he now from the fixed point? A. 4 km, West                       B. 7 km, East             C. 9 km, East             D. 7 km, West 47. A housewife saved Rs. 2.50 in buying an item on sale. If she spent Rs. 25 for the item, approximately how much percent she saved in the transaction A. 9%                                      B. 8%                          C. 10%                        D.7% 48. A man bought a number of oranges at 3 for a rupee and an equal number at 2 for a rupee. At what price per dozen should he sell them to make a profit of 20 % A. Rs.7                                    B. Rs.8                                    C.Rs.6                         D. Rs5 49. The area of a rectangle is 460 square meters. If the length is 15% more than the breadth, what is the breadth of the rectangular field? A. 23m                                    B.20m                                     C. 25m                        D.26m 50. How long does a train 110 meters long running at the speed of 72 km/hr take to cross a bridge 132 meters in length?  A. 9•8 sec      B. 12•1 sec                 C.12•42 sec               D. 14•3 sec                                                            PART-C (I)                                                  GENERAL ENGLISH Directions—(Q. 51-53) In the following questions, groups of four words are given. In each group, one word is wrongly spelt. Find the mis-spelt word and indicate your correct response. 51. A. Unaccompanied    B. Boutique      C.  Budgetting         D. Mosquitoes    52. A. Physique                   B. Preferring     C. Seize                  D. Brillient        53. A. Carrier                      B. Carreer          C. Courier              D. Barrier         Directions—(Q.54-55) In each of the following questions, out of the given alternative, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word. 54.Government by a single person  A. Monarchy     B.  Plutocracy   C. Autocracy      D. Aristocracy 55.A person who has no money to pay off his debts  A. Debtor       B. Beggar       C. Pauper      D. Insolvent Directions (Q 56-57) In the following the questions choose the word which best expresses the meaning of the given word. 56. BARE   A. Uncovered            B. Tolerate              C. Clear      D. Neat 57. BROWSE    A. Heal            B. Deceive              C. Examine      D. Strike Directions (Q 58-59) In the following the questions choose the word which best expresses opposite meaning of the given word. 58. REVEALED   A. Denied      B. Concealed      C. Ignored         D. Overlooked 59. LIABILITY   A. Property    B. Debt       C. Treasure    D. Assets Directions (Q 60-62)  Fill in the blanks with correct Prepositions 60. I met him ______ the afternoon.  A. by     B. in         C. on      D. to 61. Can you agree_____my proposal? A. to    B. too        C. with            D. into 62. The servant is attending.... him? A.  on        B. with      C. for        D. upon Directions (Q 63-64)  Fill in the blanks with correct  articles 63. I am going to _________market to by vegetables.    A. a                      B. an               C. the            D. none 64. India will become__ super power shortly A. a      B. an      C. the            D. No article Directions : Select the correct Question Tags. 65. I am honest   A. didn’t I?     B. am I?      C. am not I?       D. aren’t I? Directions: Select the proper suffix. 66. Look   A. ably      B. able      C. ing               D. eri Directions: Identify the type of sentence 67. Shakespeare has written dramas appealing to all people of all ages  A. simple present                  B. present continuous C. past perfect                        D. present perfect Directions:  Select the correct plural forms. 68. Fiction  A. fiction    B. fictions     C. fictionia       D. fictionese 69. Belief   A. beliefs     B. believes    C. belives    D. beliefings 70. Choose the sentence with correct Punctuation A. Mr. Raju could you meet me tomorrow? B. Mr. Raju , could you meet me tomorrow. C. Mr. Raju could you meet me tomorrow. D. Mr. Raju, could you meet me tomorrow? Directions : Identify the Part of speech of the underlined word in the following sentence 71. John, as well as his wife, has come A. Conjunction                     B. Preposition   C. Adverb   D. Adjective 72. We grew up together A. Adverb                  B. Adjective     C. Preposition     D. Noun 73. Choose the set of words which are in the alphabetical order  1) Celebration, celebrity, center centimeter 2) Celebration, celebrity centimeter, center 3) Celebrity, centimeter celebration, center 4) Center, centimeter, celebrity celebration Directions: In each of the following questions, a sentence has been given in Direct/Indirect Speech. Out of the four alternatives suggested select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Indirect/Direct Speech. 74. He said to her, "May you succeed !"   A. He told her that she might succeed. B. He prayed to god that she may succeed C. He Wished her success D. He said to her that she might succeed. Directions: In each of the following questions, a sentence has been given in Active(or passive) Voice. Out of the four alternatives suggested select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive(or Active) Voice 75. He was arrested on a charge of theft, but for lack of evidence he was released. A. He was arrested on a charge of theft, but was released for lack of evidence B. The police arrested him on a charge of theft, but for lack of evidence he was released. C. The police arrested him on a charge of theft, but for lack of evidence released him. D. None of these. Answers 1-      D , 2-C   , 3-A  ,  4- C , 5- A  , 6-C  , 7- D , 8- B , 9- C , 10-D  , 11-C, 12-C, 13-D  ,14-C   ,15- B  , 16-C, 17-C, 18-C, 19-A, 20-B, 21-D, 22-B,23- C , 24-D ,25-A, 26-B  , 27-C  , 28- D  , 29- B , 30-D  , 31-C  , 32-C  , 33-D  , 34-C  , 35-A  , 36-B  ,  37-B  , 38- C , 39-A  , 40-A  , 41-B  , 42-C  ,  43-D  , 44-A  , 45- B , 46-B  , 47-A  , 48-C  , 49- B , 50-B  , 51-C  , 52- D , 53- B , 54-C  , 55-C  , 56-A  , 57-C  , 58-B  , 59-D  , 60-B  , 61-B  , 62-D  , 63-C  , 64- D , 65- B , 66-B  , 67-D  , 68- A , 69- A ,70- D , 71-B  , 72- A , 73-A  , 74-C  , 75-C  Courtesy : http://akulapraveen.blogspot.in/ & http://sapost.blogspot.in/

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